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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 28.06.2025 08:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Joe Biden is not the best president we had. That would be John F. Kennedy. How is voting for Donald Trump any worse than voting for Joe Biden?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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There's no rule.